If The Church and Israel are the same, why does Jesus marry his mother?

I don't feel like making my own study on the usual replacement theology arguments, which revolve largely around Romans 9-11.  But I want to address this aspect of Revelation.

The Woman of Revelation 12:1 is clearly Israel, the Sun, Moon and 12 stars clearly draw on Joseph's dream from Genes 37:9.  And also various Old Testament Prophets speaking of Jerusalem as a woman travailing in childbirth.  So Israel is defined as The Mother of the Man-Child.

Now I mentioned this in one discussion and got "why would Jesus marry his own Body", as if the doctrine of The Church as the Body of Christ proves that we shouldn't be comparing this mystical marriage to the rules and regulations of a real marriage.

I simply responded by referencing Matthew 19:5-6

"For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?  Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder."

So the Lamb's Wife also being his Body fits perfectly.

But a Man marrying his Mother, or anyone who had been married to his Father (Israel is the Wife of Yahweh, married to him at Sinai) violates the Incest restrictions of Leviticus 18:1-20 and Leviticus 20 and Deuteronomy 27.  And Paul alludes to that as still being wrong in 1 Corinthians 5.

The Types in The Hebrew Scriptures also supports there being two symbolic Women.  The Book of Ruth has Naomi and Israel and Ruth as The Church.  Genesis 22-24 has Sarah as Israel and Rebecca as The Church.